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Number Of Sexual Partners.


Simpson

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Right I'm trying to convince my house mates that assuming everyone's straight and the population is totally split 50:50 girls to boys. Then the "average" number of people men and women have had sex with is even.

Am I right?

Can someone think of a good way of explaining it to them..........

My basic theory: Guys lie.

Discuss.

Edited by Simpson
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I think your right, assuming you mean what you think you do. Do you mean boys and girls average is even or everybodys average is the same?

Basically we were on the subject of like "what is the average number of people do you think someone will sleep with by the time they die" and the girls started saying, "well guys averages are higher...." which isn't possible? (excluding gay sex totally)

But I can't think of a great way to explain why.....

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I was talking about this the other day after seeing a statistic on the Sun that was in the staff room. Can't remember the exact numbers but I think the average was 7 point something for men, and 3 or 4 for women? Gotta agree, either someone's lying there, or there's a lot more gay sex happening than anyone seems to admit!

Only way I can think of to explain it is to reduce the numbers:

If you had 5 men, and 5 woman, then if one man slept with all 5 woman, then the number of woman each man had slept with would be 5, 0, 0, 0, 0, average = 1 and the number of men each woman had slept with would be 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, average = 1. It doesn't matter what you do with the numbers, it always works out as the averages having to be the same.

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Is this within the trials community or in general? Because you might have trouble finding someone who has had sex within the trials community.

No were talking about normal people here.

If you had 5 men, and 5 woman, then if one man slept with all 5 woman, then the number of woman each man had slept with would be 5, 0, 0, 0, 0, average = 1 and the number of men each woman had slept with would be 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, average = 1. It doesn't matter what you do with the numbers, it always works out as the averages having to be the same.

Yea I used that exact example but they don't understand it. (basically because there being narrow minded and saying yea but only one of those guys have had sex what about the other 4, and when I try making the picture bigger there eyes glaze over and when im finished they say im wrong.) trying to find a way to exaggerate or somehow explain it better....

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It could also be the test sample of people rather than the people lying. If you went up to a bunch of men in the street and asked them how many people they'd slept with, the ones who would be less likely to tell you to piss off would be the proud man slags. While if you went up to a bunch of women, the slags would be less likely to want to answer, as they wouldn't be proud of it like the man slags are, while the nice girls with good histories wouldn't mind so much.

Alright, well if each of the other guys slept with one girl, then youd get 5, 1, 1, 1, 1, average = 1.8 for men, and 2, 2, 2, 2, 1, average = 1.8 for women.

Edited by RobinJI
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Yea its more the case of a maths question mascaraing as a sex question I guess haha

Yeah, I take it your housemates (and the Suns editors!) aren't maths, science or engineering students then, and if they are, they need a good slap! laugh.gif

If you add any number to one side, regardless of how it's spread out, then if there's no gay sex you have to add the same number to the other side, which means when you total the numbers to average them, then the totals will have increased by the same amount.

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I honestly think girls lie about it way more than guys... well once guys get past like 18/19(age, not numbers).

went on holiday this year, girl i know slept with 9 people in a week,and i wouldnt even class her as a slag. you honestly reckon her new BF knows that number?? half the girls, didnt even tell their mates they were on holiday with they'd had sex,let alone anybody else.

With the advent of facebook, its well too hard for guys to play numbers down,but girls can get away with it, because were way too lazy to play facebook detective. in my last relationship, started out as a one night stand,within days I'd admitted a false number of partners(as had she), it took her about 2 weeks to figure out i was lying, couple of looks at facebook,and conversations we'd had, and she realised id mentioned more girls than the number i told her id slept with. took her about 3 weeks after that to come clean to me.

as for the maths, by the time we die, totally leaves this situation open for some necrophilia.

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As said I agree with your initial statement but just asked my housemates the questions, they also couldnt agree that it was fact. They (girls) think girls average would be much higher.

Ok to limit the paramaters.

50% girls 50% boys

All are straight

Population size of 40 million who only sleep with each other (so as big as you like)

at any snap shot in time the average of those 40 million people would be identical.... surely?

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When a lass sleeps with a lad she is considered to many as a slag. But when a lad sleeps with a lass he is then fore seen as a hero!

Only by people with an IQ of a boiled slug.

aye man, ive got an IQ of more than above average, and to me any girl who sleeps with loads of lads, isnt a slag, shes a target :P

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When a lass sleeps with a lad she is considered to many as a slag. But when a lad sleeps with a lass he is then fore seen as a hero!

Only by people with an IQ of a boiled slug.

This

And also I think Jim Jeffries explanation, that it's basically because it's easy for a woman to sleep around, where as it's not easy for a man to sleep with lots of people helps explain it a little, but doesn't justify it laugh.gif

Edit, also, Fish-Finger-er, - laugh.giflaugh.gif

Edited by RobinJI
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Right think of it this way.

100 people in a hotel. 50 men 50 women. 1 Man goes round and has sex with every lady. He therefore has slept with 50 women, while the women has only slept with one man each. Your theory doesn't stand up unfortunately. Theres no rule

yea but on average, everyone has slept with one person.

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Right think of it this way.

100 people in a hotel. 50 men 50 women. 1 Man goes round and has sex with every lady. He therefore has slept with 50 women, while the women has only slept with one man each. Your theory doesn't stand up unfortunately. Theres no rule

Your almost proving my point..... since 1 man has slept with 50 women and 49 have slept with none then their "average" number is 1. (50 / 50 = 1 )

All the women have slept with the guy, so 50 X 1 = 50 and there are 50 of them so their average is also 1.

don't worry I googled it so now know im right http://www.musingsonlifeandlove.com/2011/01/03/mathematical-proof-that-women-are-just-as-promiscuous-as-men/

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